Drug X produces maximal contraction of cardiac muscle in a manner similar to epinephrine (adrenaline). Drug X is considered to be a(n)

agonist

You are reviewing the data from several meta-analysis that addressed the most common causes of adverse or otherwise excessive effects of prescription drugs in young adults and in elderly (>60 yeares of age).Interactions between multiple drugs were not considered. Which variable would you find to be decreased, and be the most common general cause of these problems, in the elders

renal function/clearance

To the phenomena developing after repeated administration of medical substances is all, except

idiosyncrasy

Of the following characteristics, which is unlikely to be associated with the process of facilitated diffusion of drugs

the drug crosses the membrane against a concentration gradient and the process requires cellular energy

Drug products have many types of names. Of the following types of names that are applied to drugs, that one that is the official name and refers only to that drug and not to a particular product is the

original name

Idiosyncratic reaction of a drug is

unpredictable, inherent, qualitatively abnormal reaction to a drug

If two drugs with the same effect, taken together, produce an effect that is equal in magnitude to the sum of the effects of the drugs given individually, it is called as

additive effect

What type of the interaction is associated with impaired of absorption, biotransformation, deposion and excreation of drugs

pharmacokinetic

The situation when failure to continue administering the drug results in serious psychological and somatic disturbances is called

abstinence syndrome

If a drug is repeatedly administered at dosing intervals that are equal to its elimination half-life, the number of doses required for the plasma concentration of the drug to reach the steady state is

4 to 5 

Two drugs act on the same tissue through independent receptors, resulting in effects in opposite directions. This is known as

physiologic antagonism

A 16 –year –old girl suffering from seasonal rhinitis started a therapy with loratadine, a drug that binds to H1 histamine receptors. Which of the following terms best defines to the intrinsic ability of a drug to bind to a receptors

affinity

Which of the following terms best defines a drug that binds to alpha adrenergic receptors, has no intrinsic activity, and cannot be displaced by epinephrine

irreversible antagonist

A drug that rapidly combines with a receptor to initiate a response and rapidly dissociate or release from receptor is called a (an)

agonist

Bulk flow of water through membrane pores, resulting from osmotic diffuses across the membrane, transport drug molecules that fit through the membrane pores

filtration

Adverse effect on embryo unaccompanied by the development of congenital malformations is called

embryotoxic action

Pick out the right statement

microsomal oxidation results in an increase of ionization and water solubility of a drug

For the calculation of the volume of distribution (Vd) one must take into account

concentration of a substance in plasma

Correct statements listing characteristics of a parenteral route of drug administration include all of the following EXCEPT

inhalation provides slow access to the general circulation

Which parameter reflects the degree of clearance from drugs

clearance

Which parameter characterizes the amount of drug that entered to the systemic circulation

bioavailability

Lipophilic drugs penetrate the membrane at a speed proportional to the concentration gradient and the distribution coefficient (lipid/water) in the following way

simple diffusion

Hypoproteinemia leads to increased action of drugs, because

increases free fraction of drug that manifesting pharmacological effects

The degree of drug binding with blood proteins DOES NOT depend on

pharmacodynamics

The drug gets into the blood stream, bypassing liver barrier, when used in the form

oral

The main direction of biotransformation reaction with the participation of cytochrome P-450

make molecule more hydrophilic

The transfer of drugs through the membrane from the low concentration to a space with high concentration is called

active transport

For acceleration of substance excretion of the acid character from the body needs

to produce alkalization of urine

For acceleration of substance excretion of the basic character from the body needs

to acidify urine

The substance most rapidly excreted from the body if it is in the kidneys

filtered and secreted

What methods of drug administration doesn’t undergo by presystemic elimination

sublingual

What methods of drug administration doesn’t undergo by presystemic (first pass) elimination

rectal

What methods of drug administration doesn’t undergo by presystemic (first pass) elimination

intravenous

Intense binding of drugs with plasma proteins

decreases volume of distribution

Factors that affecting to total clearance of drug substances

excretion rate

How does change renal excretion of weak electrolytes when increased their ionization

increases

The area under the curve (AUC), reflecting dependence of time variation of a substance concentration in plasma after enteral administration

used to calculate bioavailability of substance

Metabolites that resulting from the biotransformation of drugs

more polar

The rate of biotransformation of most drugs is increasing

in hepatic microsomal enzyme induction

Changes of drugs under the influence of microsomal liver enzymes

decrease pharmacological activity

Changes of drugs under the influence of microsomal liver enzymes

increase polarity

Changes of drugs under the influence of microsomal liver enzymes

increase hydrophilicity

What is typical for drugs that bound with plasma protein

do not have pharmacological activity

Types of drug transport through the membrane are all, EXCEPT

enzyme inhibition

When drug administrated enteral, then its bioavailability is determined by

degree of absorption and metabolism at the first passage through the liver

The degree of absorption of drugs when administered orally can be assessed by using this indicator

bioavailability

The intensity of passive diffusion of drug substances through membranes determined by

lipophilic degree of substance

The intensity of passive diffusion of drug substances through the cell membrane is determined by

transmembrane concentration gradient of substance

The absorption of drugs from intestine against the concentration gradient may be provided by

active transport

What is characteristic of active transport of drugs through membrane

<variant>can be against the concentration gradient

Which drug is used to suppress the erythrocytic phase of malaria

chloroquine

Which of the following cell constituents most likely function as drug receptor +ion channel proteins

<variant>G-proteins

Which drug is used to suppress the erythrocytic phase of malaria

quinidine

Directly related to ion channels

<variant>GABA receptor 

Which of the following terms describes the actions of a tablet on the body after ingestion and adsorption

<variant>pharmacodynamics 

The time it takes for the drug to eliminate 50% of the amount of its concentration in plasma or body is referred to us

<variant>T 1|2  half life

The mechanism of action of chloroquine in Plasmodium falciparum malaria is elimination of

asexual forms

Indication of the degree of absorption of drugs is

<variant>bioavailability

What does determine the low oral bioavailability of drugs

<variant>high hepatic clearance

Adenylate cyclase is activated by stimulation

<variant>β2- adrenergic receptors

>Tick the drug for nematodosis (roundworm invasion) treatment

pyrantel

Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs through liver is minimized

<variant>rectal

Half life (T ½) depends of

<variant>time of drug absorption

The intensity of passive diffusion of drug substances through the cell membrane is determined by

<variant>concentration gradient of substance

Which parameter describes the duration of drug action

<variant>half-life

A hydrophilic medicinal agent has the following property

<variant>low ability to penetrate through the cell membrane lipids

The rate of blood clearance from drug and its elimination from body is called

<variant>clearance

The main route of drug elimination from body is

<variant>kidneys

The intensity of passive diffusion of drug substances through the cell membrane is determined by

<variant>degree of substance lipophilicity, concentration gradient

Which of the following features has the process of microsomal oxidation of substances in the liver

<variant>non-specificity of substrate

Which of the following features has the process of microsomal oxidation of substances in the liver

<variant>the ability to induction

The prolongation of drug effect is achieved in

<variant>enterohepatic circulation

The prolongation of drug effect is achieved in

<variant>creation of storage in fat tissue

Drug acetylation means

<variant>type of conjugation

Drug acetylation means

<variant>chemical biotransformation type occurring in the liver

Which of the following feature has the process of microsomal oxidation of substances in the liver

<variant>possibility of inhibition

Features of rectal route of administration

<variant>is suitable, if drug causes vomiting

Factors that affecting to drug in the stomach

<variant>acidic environment 

Drug acetylation means

<variant>joining of acetic acid residue with acetyl-CoA participation

Which compound easily penetrates through the blood-brain barrier

<variant>lipophilic

Parenteral route of drug administration includes

<variant>intramuscular

Parenteral route of drug administration includes

<variant>inhalation

Hepatic microsomal enzyme induction may

<variant>require increase dose of certain substances

To calculate the volume of drug distribution need to know

<variant>the concentration of a substance in the plasma

The rate of biotransformation of drugs pronounced change

<variant>cytochrome P-450 inhibitors

Tick the drug, blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction of helminthes

<variant>piperazine

The rate of biotransformation of drugs pronounced change

<variant>cytochrome P-450 inductors

The drug of choice for treatment of Schistosoma haematobium is

<variant>prazoquantel

The drug of choice for the treatment of T.saginata (tapeworm) is

<variant>niclosamide

Thiabendazole, a benzimidazole derivative, is antihelminthic drug used primary to treat infections caused by

<variant>strongyloides

In which of the following organ occur microsomal biotransformation of drugs

<variant>liver

Which of the following is typical for hydrophilic drug substances

<variant>low ability to penetrate through lipid layers of cell membranes

The cytochrome P 450 system in the liver

<variant>involves in oxidation process by microsomal enzymes

The mechanism of action by which pyrantel pamoate is effective for treatment of Necator americanus (hookworm) is

<variant>inhibition of neuromuscular transmission

Tick the antiviral drug which belongs to endogenous proteins

<variant>interferon alfa

Name the drug used for influenza A prevention

<variant>rimantadine

Tick the drug, inhibiting viral DNA synthesis

<variant>acyclovir

Limited kidney filtration of

<variant>substance that bound with plasma protein

Factors that affecting to total clearance of drug substances

<variant>biotransformation rate

Choose the drug, a derivative of adamantane

<variant>rimantadine

Thick the drug, inhibiting M2-protein

<variant>rimantadine

Which synthetic antifungal drug inhibits an enzyme needed for biosynthesis of ergosterol by fungi

<variant>terbinafine

Which drug has the highest toxicity

<variant>amphotericin B

Which of the following antifungal drug has anti-androgenic effects

<variant>ketoconazole

Which of the following is the fungi static mechanism of action of griseofulvin

<variant>disruption of the synthesis of nucleic proteins

Which of the following drug is more effective for candidiasis

<variant>fluconazole

Which of the following drug belongs to polyene antifungal agents

<variant>nystatin

Which indicator determines the elimination rate of drug by biotransformation

<variant>metabolic clearance

Rate of drug metabolism is reduced

<variant>in children 1st months of life 

The rate of drug metabolism is reduced

<variant>in elderly persons with liver diseases

Chronic candidiasis infections of the GI tract and oral cavity are treated with agent in pill form

<variant>fluconazole
<variant>fluconazole

What is the mechanism of action of isoniazid

<variant>inhibit mycolic acid

Mechanism of aminosalicylic acid action is

<variant>inhibition of folate synthesis

Streptomycin has the following unwanted effect

<variant>ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity

Under the influence of hepatic microsomal enzyme inductors (eg, phenobarbital) synthesis of these enzymes

<variant>increases

Ethambutol has the following unwanted effect

<variant>retrobulbar neuritis with red-green color blindness

Isoniazid has following unwanted effect

<variant>hepatotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy

The absorption of drugs included in the concept

<variant>pharmacokinetics

Drug administration through the digestive tract represents the term

<variant>enteral administration

Suspension can’t be administered

<variant>intravenous

Which of the following reaction is conjugation process

<variant>glucuronide

Mechanism of Streptomycin action is

<variant>inhibition of protein synthesis

Mechanism of Rifampin action is

<variant>inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase

Mechanism of Izoniazid action is

<variant>inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis

Tick the antimycobacterial drug – hydrazide of isonicotinic acid

<variant>isoniazid

Antiseptic from the group of dyes is

<variant>methylene blue

Aminoglycosides

<variant>gentamicin

Tick the antitubercular drug, belonging to antibiotics

<variant>rifampin

Tick the antitubercular drug, having the least activity

<variant>PAS

Tick the antimycobacterial drug belonging to first-line agents

<variant>isoniazid

Tick the drug, which is effective against only M.tuberculosis

<variant>isoniazid

In hypersensitivity reaction of immediate type do not apply

<variant>azathioprine

Some H-1 receptor blockers have effects on other tissue. One of the effects of these drugs on serotonin receptors is

<variant>increased appetite

Which drug refers to antiseptics

<variant>chloramine B

Antiseptic from the group of aldehyde is

<variant>formalin

What drug affects only on a tubercle bacillus

<variant>ethionamide

What drug does not dysbiosis

<variant>streptomycin

Antagonist of para-aminobenzoic is

<variant>sodium para-aminosalicylate

What drug does not cause dysbiosis

<variant>isoniazid

What is function of the COX-1 enzymes

<variant>protects the stomach

In addition to inhibition of COX mefenamic acid can also

<variant>blocks prostaglandin receptors

Epinephrine does not apply

<variant>in allergic reactions of delayed type

Immunosuppressive effect of glucocorticoids is not related

<variant>violation of  histamine synthesis

Impaired vision causes

<variant>ethambutol

In what diseases do not apply fluoroquinolones

<variant>liver/ hepatosepsis

What is important adverse effects for fluoroquinolones

<variant>phototoxicity

Which drug has both hypnotic and antiepileptic action

<variant>phenobarbitone

What is the action of kinins

<variant>cause pain

Which of the following is not particularly sensitive to fluoroquinolones

<variant>staphylococcus

Which of the following is not sensitive to fluoroquinolones

<variant>MRSA

Name the neurotransmitters associated with anxiety

<variant>norepinephrine

Name the neurotransmitters associated with anxiety

<variant>GABA

Which drug is used for barbiturate derivatives poisoning

<variant>activated charcoal

Which drug has anticonvulsant action

<variant>diazepam

Which fluoroquinolones is preferred to treat pneumonia

<variant>levofloxacin

Suitable for treatment of bacterial meningitis caused by H.influenzae

<variant>cefotaxime

Antibacterials regarded as generally safe to prescribe in pregnancy

<variant>erythromycin

Which drug would not appropriate to treat the septicemia

<variant>phenoxymethyl penicillin

Zolpidem

<variant>binds selectively to GABA-A receptors that contain an alpha -1 subunut

Flumazenil

<variant>may be used to reverse the effect of lorazepam

Name the neurotransmitters associated with anxiety

<variant>5 –HT

Synergisticantimicrobialcombination

<variant>amoxicillin- gentamycin

Propertiesoftetracycline

<variant>drug of choice in treating typhus

Benzodiazepine antagonist

<variant>flumazenil

Fast acting anesthetic: route of administration intravenous

<variant>thiopental

Effective in managing acute ethanol withdrawal

<variant>diazepam

The greatest number of antimicrobic allergies is reported for what drug

<variant>penicillins

What product should not be taken with tetracyclines

<variant>milk

Which of the following NSAIDs is an oxicam derivative

<variant>piroxicam

Which of the following NSAIDs is a nonselective COX inhibitor

<variant>piroxicam

Aspirin, NSAIDs, and acetaminophen can act by

<variant>inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins

Shortest –acting benzodiazepine

<variant>triazolam

Which of the following NSAIDs is a propionic acid derivative

<variant>ibuprofen

Which of the following NSAIDs is an indol derivative

<variant>indomethacin

Which of the following NSAIDs is a pyrazolone derivative

<variant>metamizole

Which drug binds to microtubulat protein in the nucleus, disrupts the mitotic spindle and inhibits mitosis in the fungus

<variant>griseofulvin

Ketoprofen and naproxen are which class of drugs

<variant>propionic acids

Inhibition of COX -1 would cause which of the following results

<variant>gastric irritation

Inhibition of COX -1 would cause which of the following results

<variant>bleeding

Tick narcotic analgesic, which is a phenylpiperidine derivative

<variant>fentanyl

Which polyene antibiotic is used for local candida infections like oral thrush and vaginal candiasis

<variant>nystatin

Which oral azole is used for the treatment of mucocutaneous candidiasis and dermatophytosis? It is fatal hepatotoxicity

<variant>ketoconazole

What drug is recommended for the treatment of local candidial infections like oral thrush

<variant>amphotericin B

Naloxone and Naltrexone are what class of drugs

<variant>opioid antagonists

Which of the following non-acidic componds is not a COX -2 inhibitor

<variant>aspirin

Which of the following results can be expected from an opioid agonist

<variant>analgesia

Tick niclosamide mechanism of action

<variant>inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes

Chose the pure narcotic antagonist

<variant>naltrexone

Prescribed to manage diarrhea

<variant>loperamide

Pain most effectively relieved by opioid agonists

<variant>severe ,constant pain

Tick praziquantel mechanism of action

<variant>increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and death of helminthes

Tick piperazine mechanism of action

<variant>blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes

Systolyc pressure is decreased after the injection of which of following drugs

<variant>metoprolol

The nonselective beta-adrenergic blocking agent that is also a competitive antagonist at alfa1-adrenoceptors is

<variant>labetalol

Chose the pure narcotic antagonist

<variant>naloxone

Tick mebendazole mechanism of action

<variant>inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptake

A patient will started on primaquine to treat active Plasmodium vivax malaria, specifically to target the hepatic forms of the parasite. Before you administer the drug you should screen the patient to assess their relative risk of developing a relatively common and severe response to the drug. What is that primaquine-associated risk

<variant>hemolytic disease

β2 adrenergic receptor blockers: effects on the heart

<variant>decrease force of contraction

Examples of β2 adrenergic selective agonists

<variant>terbutaline

Most cardioselective β1 adrenergic receptor antagonist

<variant>atenolol

Which one of the following drugs is useful in treating tachycardia

<variant>propranolol

Principal receptors activated by norepinephrine^

<variant>β1 adrenergic

Primary mechanism by which norepinephrine acutely increases BP

<variant>increases heart rate

Primary mechanism by which norepinephrine acutely increases BP

<variant>vasoconstriction at precapillary resistance muscles and veins

Rate –determining enzyme reaction in catecholamine biosynthesis

<variant>tyrosine hydroxylase

Used to suppress premature labor

<variant>salbutamol

Principal receptors activated by norepinephrine^

<variant>α1 adrenergic

What is the primary use of a β-blocker

<variant>hypertension

Which drugs have the wider range of effects

<variant>β- blockers

Side effects of β- adrenergic blocker drug

<variant>bronchoconstriction

Contraindications for β-blockers

<variant>acute asthmatic attack

Side effects of α1-blockers

<variant>first dose phenomenon

Which of the following antimuscarinic drugs is a selective M1 blocker

<variant>pirenzepine

Which of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of Parkinson′s disease

<variant>benztropine

Neostigmine

<variant>may result in bowel hypermotility, salivation, and sweating

Which enzyme is inhibited by echothiophate iodide

<variant>acetylcholinesterase(AChE)

Pralidoxime chloride is a drug that

<variant>reactivates cholinesterases that have been inhibited by organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitors

Direct acting cholinergic agonists

<variant>pilocarpine

Pilocarpine

<variant>is used to lower intraocular pressure in glaucoma

Where are nicotinic receptors found

<variant>neuromuscular junction

Where are muscarinic receptors found

<variant>bronchial muscle

How to take pilocarpine

<variant>eye drops

Where are nicotinic receptors found

<variant>adrenaline medullary cells

The concept of “pharmacokinetics” includes

biotransformation of drug

List the sequence of units that constitute the reflex arc

receptor, sensitive neuron, motoneuron, working organ++

How will change amplitude of action potential at increase of irritation force?

does not vary++

Under what conditions will increase the threshold of irritation at excitable tissues?

at slow increase of force stimuli++

What changes occur in muscle with increasing strength of the stimulus?

force of contraction  increases ++

What the structures included in the neuromuscular synapse?

presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes++

What are the changes of the membrane cause a positive afterpotential?

hyperpolarization++

Specify the duration of what phase of cell excitability regulates liability?

Refractority++

How reflex reactions of an organism to the external or internal irritations characterised by strongly pronounced subjective colouring are called?

Emotion++

What characterizes emotions of sthenic type?

locomotors excitation ++

What determines the amplitude of a smooth tetanus?

Frequencies of irritation++

What is the ability of receptors to respond on adequate stimuli of threshold force?

specificity ++

What structure of the CNS translates short-term memory into long-term?

hippocampus++

What is the reason the pursuit of knowledge?

social  motivation++

What structures refer to the acoustic analyzer receptors?

hair cells++

Where are located receptors, at excitation of which arise bitter taste?

root of the tongue++

Which changes of vision occur when rays focused the on the fovea centralis?

the best vision of a subject++

What is the assimilation of food of plant origin?

C.80%++

By means of what communication liberins regulate secretion of tropine?

straight line positive ++

What is irradiation?

distribution of excitation in the CNS++

Which hormone causes an increase in basal metabolic rate?

thyroxine++

How in blood the increase in concentration of glucose influences insulin secretion?

raises++

What substances included by synaptic vesicles?

mediators ++

How name of the minimum force of stimulus, causing excitation?

irritation threshold ++

What is the morphological basis of reflex?

reflex arch++

What stimuli are adequate for the nervous tissue?

Electric, chemical++

What are the physiological properties relate to smooth muscle?

Excitability, conductivity, automaticity, contractility ++

What mechanisms of excitation conduction at the synapse?

Chemical and electric ++

On a practical lesson, the students worked on the formation of conditioned pupillary reflex. Elaborated conditioned pupillary reflex is extinguished after 15-20 seconds. Which class is elaborated conditioned reflex, a characteristic feature, which is fast fading?

artificial++

After a brain injury patient has memory impairment. What do you call this pathology?

amnesia++

What substances are necessary for muscle contraction?

Ca + +, ATP +++

What happens to a conditioned reflex activity under the influence of strong external stimuli?

weaken++

Which indicates the weakness of the excitation process?

Fast approach of protective inhibition++

What condition is necessary for the forming of conditioned reflexes?

conditioned stimulus precedes the unconditioned+++

What mechanism underlies the prestart changes in the functions of an athlete?

conditioned reflex++

What are the features of the functions of the left hemisphere of the brain?

there are more functions associated with the II signaling system++

The person has addressed to the doctor with the complaint to a strong pain in temporal areA. At anamnesis gathering it was found out, that it has been subjected to strong sound influence. Note, at what pressure of a sound wave upon an ear there are painful sensations?

130 dB++

During trainings of the cadet have set in armchair Barany and rotated with frequency 1 turn for a second. At it have noted occurrence nystagmus eye, nystagmus of the heads and redistribution of a muscular tone. The given phenomena concern what type of reactions?

vestibular-motor++

What is the basic functional specialization of the right hemisphere of the human brain?

figurative thinking++

Which fields of vision injuries in the chiasm visual pathways?

Lateral on the right and at the left++

What concerns anomalies of a refraction?

astigmatism, myopia, hypermetropia++

At what conditions of an organism the positive nitrogenous balance is observed?

in growth, at pregnancy, at the moment of recover++

What happens to the sensitivity of hearing with prolonged action of sound in the ear?

Decreases ++

Between the strength of the stimulus and the time of exposure determine the type of dependence. What a character he has?

hyperbolic   ++

What kind of inhibitory provides a coherent antagonist muscles?

Reciprocal++

For a normal human life requires a full diet. How many carbohydrates should be in the daily diet for knowledge workers?

400-500 g++

Under the influence of the threshold stimulus in excitable tissues is formed by the action potential. What changes are occurring with the cellular membrane at generation action potential?

membrane depolarization++

The process of development of parabiosis proceeds with alternating several phases. Determine what the correct sequence of phases parabiosis?

equal, paradoxical, inhibition++

As a result of exercise the athlete develop muscle fatigue. What device can determine the severity of muscle fatigue?

ergograph, ergometer++

Than the subnormal phase of tissue excitability is characterised?

decrease  of excitability, in comparison with an initial condition ++

To what phase of action potential there corresponds decrease of tissue excitability?

Fast depolarization ++

That develops in the muscles of the patient at the limb immobilization cast, transection of the tendon, a long stay in bed?

atrophy     +++

What is characteristic of the formed conditioned reflex?

in time++

What reflex is congenital?

Salivation on irritation oral cavity food++

What time period should be in the development of a conditioned reflex between conditioned and unconditioned stimuli?

From 5 to 15 sec++

What reflexes allocate the ratio of the duration of the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli?

Available++

What reflexes are the most durable?

nature food++

Positive emotions of moderate intensity are connected with reactions of what system?

parasympathetic systems  ++           

What kind of person GNA is a creative activity, the intuitive human behavior?

superconscious++

What is level implemented reaction, supporting the automated nature, including behavioral?

Subconscious++

Where localized Wernick’ center, providing the perception of speech?

temporal cortex++

With what the higher emotions are connected?

satisfaction of social requirements  ++

What is the status of serotonin accelerates the training?

positive emotions++

Where are the subcortical centers of hearing?

posterior quadrigeminal++

What frequencies disappear at destruction of cochlea apex?

A  lower frequencies++

Which types receptors depending on the nature of the stimulus are vestibuloseptors?

to mechanoreceptors++

What is the sequence of transmission of sound vibrations to the acoustical ossicles ?

malleus – incus- stapes ++

What is the role of the Eustachian tube that connects the middle ear cavity to the nasopharynx?

provide normal barometric pressure on the middle ear++

Where are the subcortical centers of hearing?

What kind of food is recommended for supper?

milk -vegetative food++

What within the range of frequencies is ​​maximal hearing sensitivity in humans?

1000-4000 Hz++

What are the functions of external auditory meatus?

transmits  sound vibrations to the tympanum++

What is the average energy value of daily ration for students - doctors?

3000 kcal++

What kind of food is recommended for breakfast?

protein food++

Specify what is meant by chemical thermoregulation?

intensity of a metabolism++

What is the calorific coefficient of fat?

9, 3 kcal++

What food has expressed specifically - dynamic action?

The proteins++

Under what conditions the negative nitrogenous balance is observed?

at starvation++

Determine what is causing the positive nitrogen balance?

organism growth++

In what department of the CNS are localized the major centers of thermoregulation?

Hypothalamus++

Energy of the basal metabolism is spent for what processes?

Breath, a motility of a digestive path, body temperature maintenance, heart work++

In what results a lack of thyroxine?

decrease of the basal metabolism++

Name the conditions necessary for determining basal metabolism

Conditions on an empty stomach, laying, temperature of 18-20 degrees++

Where are located centers of the parasympathetic nervous system?

medulla oblongata, midbrain, sacral parts of the spinal cord++

What mediators responsible inhibition in the CNS?

GABA, glycine++

With what increased reflex response with increasing frequency of subthreshold stimuli?

summation++

What kind of inhibition in the CNS associated phase of contraction and relaxation of muscles-antagonists limbs?

reciprocal++

What mediators transmitted excitation in the synapses of the autonomic nervous system?

acetylcholin, noradrenaline++

What device it is possible to study muscle fatigue?

Ergograph++

What properties are characterized by a dominant centre of excitation?

stable excitation, the ability to summation, inertia++

As is the ability of the nerve centers to change the frequency and strength of the incoming pulses to them?

transformation++

What provides maintenance of a constancy of rest potential?

sodium-potassium pump +++

What contraction smooth muscles are capable?

long the tonic ++             

At what work at muscular fibres the length decreases, but tension does not develop?

Static++

How to call an increase in membrane potential?

repolarization+++

How to call restoration of initial membrane potential?

repolarization+++

Difference of which ions concentration take place at rest potential?

Na and K+++

How to call a decrease in membrane potential?

Depolarization+++

What processes that are closely related to each other, form the basis of learning and thinking?

storing, storage+++

What is the memory in which is not fixed attention on the process of remembering?

involuntary+++

What law the contraction of single muscular fiber is submitted?

«all or none» +++

What is inability to write correctly the meaning and shape while maintaining the motor function of hands?

aphasia ++

What is meant by an incentive for activities related to the satisfaction of needs?

motivation+++

What are the limits of human body temperature fluctuates during the day?

0, 5 - 0,7 ° C+

At what time of day there is a minimum body temperature in humans?

3 - 4 hours+++

What is disorder of a definite purposeful act?

apraxia+++

What endocrine gland is main?

hypophysis +++

What is the anomaly of color vision?

daltonism+++

What is the daily intake of protein for persons of mental work?

1,5 g / kg body weight+++

What should be the daily content in the diet of carbohydrates for persons of mental work?

E.400-500 g+++

What are the hypothalamic releasing factors stimulates the secretion of pituitary tropine?

liberins+++

What is physiological role of carbohydrates in the body?

mainly energy+++

As it is called the appearance of the membrane potential difference of opposite sign?

reverse of  membrane potential +++

What is principle the higher parts of the central nervous system subordinated the lower divisions of the CNS?

Hierarchy+++

What are the hypothalamic releasing factors inhibit the secretion of pituitary tropine?

statins++

How name ability of muscles to restore initial length after a stretching?

elasticity+++

Anxiolytic:serotonin -1 A receptor sites

>buspirone

 

Which one of the following statements is correct

>phenobarbital induces respiratory depression, which is enhanced by the consumption of ethanol

Effective drug in managing acute gouty arthritis ; also accelerates closure of patent ductus arteriosus in premature infants

>indomethacin

Which hypnotic drug has allosteric interaction with a macromolecular complex GAMK leads to more frequent opening of chloride channels

>phenazepam

 

Indicate ion channels are modulated by benzodiazepine derivatives

>chlorine

Aspirin: true answer

>inhibits cyclooxygenase

Mediator most likely to promote pain

>prostaglandins

The oxicams (piroxicam, tenoxicam and meloxicam) are similar to the salicylates EXCEPT they

>have less GI side effects

Mr.X has had history of hemophilia all of his life. He was recently diagnosed with gout. As his pharmacist, which of the following NSAIDs would you recommend

>celecoxib

Highly selective COX-2 inhibitors are anti-inflammatory drugs with fewer GI side effects compared to aspirin.What other effect do COX -2 inhibitors lack in contrast to aspirin

>antiplatelet

 

The mechanism of action of montelukast involves

>leukotriene receptor antagonism

NSAIDs such as aspirin can produce a type of allergic response in some patients. Which step, if blocked, is responsible for causing this drug allergy

>phospholypasa A-2

 

Which group of drugs reduces pain, anti-inflammatory effect and is used for peptic ulcers, enteritis, colitis

>astringents

 

A patient presents with history of GI irritation and bleeding which of the following should you avoid prescribing

>aspirin

The prolonged apnea sometimes seen in patients who have undergone an operation in which succinylcholine was used as muscle relaxant has been shown to be due to

>depressed levels of plasma cholinesterase

Which of the following may precipitate an attack of open-angle glaucoma if instilled into the eye

>atropine

 

A 75-year-old man who was a smoker is diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and suffers from occasional bronchospasm. Which of the following would be effective in treating him

>ipratropium aerosol

A patient on a diagnostic test for myasthenia gravis would be expected to have improved neuromuscular function after being treated with

>edrophonium

 

Mechanism of action of irritants drugs is

>stimulation of nerve ending of the skin

Effects of anticholinesterase agents in therapeutic doses is

>bradycardia

 

Which of following INCORRECTLY matches a cholinergic agonist with a pharmacological action

>physostigmine;decreases intestinal motility

Which of the following is not an expected symptom of poisoning with isoflurophate

>tachycardia

 

Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers are associated with all of the following EXPECT

>initial activation of Ach receptor and depolarization of the motor plate

A 50-year-old male farm worker is brought to the emergency room. He was found confused in the orchard and since then lost consciousness. His heart rate is 45, and his BP is 80/40mmHg.he is sweating and salivating profusely. Which of the following treatments is indicated?

>atropine

 

Rational for I.V. morphine to manage dyspnea secondary to acute pulmonary edema

>decrease preload

Possible mechanism responsible for opioid –mediated flushing and warming of the skin

>histamine release

A 68 –year-old man presents to emergency department with acute heart failure. The patient requires immediate drug therapy to improve his cardiac function. Which one of the following drugs would be most beneficial

>dobutamine

 

Purpose of α1-blockers all, expect

 >hypotension

Which of the following is TRUE regarding bupivacaine

>more potent than procaine

 

What is the mistake in this prescription Rp.:Solutionis Atropini sulfatis 0,1% - 10 ml Da.Signa:1 tablet 2 times a day

>mistake in the recipe in instructions to the patient

What is the mistake in this prescription Rp.:Tabulettas Digoxini 0,00025 Da tales doses numero 10 Signa.1 tablet 3 times a day

>mistake in name of the medicinal form

 

Drug X produces maximal contraction of cardiac muscle in a manner similar to epinephrine (adrenaline). Drug X is considered to be a(n)

>agonist

Which of the following are the main purposes for adding a vasoconstrictor drug to a local anesthetic

>to increase the duration of anesthetic effect

Procaine: true answer

metabolized primarily in the liver

Which of the following is FALSE regarding procaine

>high potency

Which of the following statements best explains why the onset of the therapeutic effect of a local anesthetic usually slower in infected tissues

<variant>they have a low extracellular pH, which hinders drug diffusion into the cell

A 14-year-old boy complained of burning pain due to multiple superficial skin abrasions. Which of the following local anesthetics would be appropriate for this boy

>benzocaine

Which of the following are the main purposes for adding a vasoconstrictor drug to a local anesthetic

>to decrease the risk of systemic overdose toxicity of the drug

 

Why procaine cannot be combined with sulfonamides

>is an antagonist of sulfonamides

Why benzocaine is not used for infiltration anesthesia

>insoluble in water

 

Which of the following molecular events makes the nerve membrane more sensitive to the action of local anesthetics

>increased extracellular concentration of K+

Mechanism of action of astringents drugs is

>coagulation proteins on the mucosa

Specify the reason for the low activity of local anesthetics in inflammation

>acidic environment in the inflammation and in ability to go into the base

What factor reduces the effect of procaine in the inflammation

>more acidic environment in the inflammation

 

Which of the following terms best defines a drug that binds to alpha adrenergic receptors, has no intrinsic activity, and cannot be displaced by epinephrine

>irreversible antagonist

A drug that rapidly combines with a receptor to initiate a response and rapidly dissociate or release from receptor is called a (an)

>agonist

 

Bulk flow of water through membrane pores, resulting from osmotic diffuses across the membrane, transport drug molecules that fit through the membrane pores

>filtration

If two drugs with the same effect, taken together, produce an effect that is equal in magnitude to the sum of the effects of the drugs given individually, it is called as

>additive effect

What type of the interaction is associated with impaired of absorption, biotransformation, deposion and excreation of drugs

>pharmacokinetic

 

The situation when failure to continue administering the drug results in serious psychological and somatic disturbances is called

>abstinence syndrome

If a drug is repeatedly administered at dosing intervals that are equal to its elimination half-life, the number of doses required for the plasma concentration of the drug to reach the steady state is

>4 to 5 

 

Two drugs act on the same tissue through independent receptors, resulting in effects in opposite directions. This is known as

>physiologic antagonism

A 16 –year –old girl suffering from seasonal rhinitis started a therapy with loratadine, a drug that binds to H1 histamine receptors. Which of the following terms best defines to the intrinsic ability of a drug to bind to a receptors

>affinity

 

To the phenomena developing after repeated administration of medical substances is all, except

>idiosyncrasy

Of the following characteristics, which is unlikely to be associated with the process of facilitated diffusion of drugs

>the drug crosses the membrane against a concentration gradient and the process requires cellular energy

 

Drug products have many types of names. Of the following types of names that are applied to drugs, that one that is the official name and refers only to that drug and not to a particular product is the

>original name

Idiosyncratic reaction of a drug is

 >unpredictable, inherent, qualitatively abnormal reaction to a drug

 

The degree of absorption of drugs when administered orally can be assessed by using this indicator

>bioavailability

You are reviewing the data from several meta-analysis that addressed the most common causes of adverse or otherwise excessive effects of prescription drugs in young adults and in elderly (>60 yeares of age).Interactions between multiple drugs were not considered. Which variable would you find to be decreased, and be the most common general cause of these problems, in the elders

>renal function/clearance

Types of drug transport through the membrane are all, EXCEPT

>enzyme inhibition

When drug administrated enteral, then its bioavailability is determined by

>degree of absorption and metabolism at the first passage through the liver

 

The rate of biotransformation of most drugs is increasing

>in hepatic microsomal enzyme induction

 

Changes of drugs under the influence of microsomal liver enzymes

>decrease pharmacological activity

Changes of drugs under the influence of microsomal liver enzymes

>increase polarity

 

Changes of drugs under the influence of microsomal liver enzymes

>increase hydrophilicity

What is typical for drugs that bound with plasma protein

>do not have pharmacological activity

 

What methods of drug administration doesn’t undergo by presystemic (first pass) elimination

>intravenous

 

Intense binding of drugs with plasma proteins

>decreases volume of distribution

Factors that affecting to total clearance of drug substances

>excretion rate

 

How does change renal excretion of weak electrolytes when increased their ionization

>increases

The area under the curve (AUC), reflecting dependence of time variation of a substance concentration in plasma after enteral administration

>used to calculate bioavailability of substance

 

Metabolites that resulting from the biotransformation of drugs

>more polar

For acceleration of substance excretion of the basic character from the body needs

>to acidify urine

The substance most rapidly excreted from the body if it is in the kidneys

>filtered and secreted

 

Features of rectal route of drug administration compared with oral

>drug less neutralized in liver

What methods of drug administration doesn’t undergo by presystemic elimination

>sublingual

 

What methods of drug administration doesn’t undergo by presystemic (first pass) elimination

>rectal

The transfer of drugs through the membrane from the low concentration to a space with high concentration is called

>active transport

For acceleration of substance excretion of the acid character from the body needs

>to produce alkalization of urine

 

Hypoproteinemia leads to increased action of drugs, because

>increases free fraction of drug that manifesting pharmacological effects

The degree of drug binding with blood proteins DOES NOT depend on

>pharmacodynamics

 

The drug gets into the blood stream, bypassing liver barrier, when used in the form

>oral                      

The main direction of biotransformation reaction with the participation of cytochrome P-450

<make molecule more hydrophilic

 

Pick out the right statement

>microsomal oxidation results in an increase of ionization and water solubility of a drug

For the calculation of the volume of distribution (Vd) one must take into account

>concentration of a substance in plasma

 

Correct statements listing characteristics of a parenteral route of drug administration include all of the following EXCEPT

>inhalation provides slow access to the general circulation

Which parameter reflects the degree of clearance from drugs

>clearance

 

Which parameter characterizes the amount of drug that entered to the systemic circulation

>bioavailability

Lipophilic drugs penetrate the membrane at a speed proportional to the concentration gradient and the distribution coefficient (lipid/water) in the following way

>simple diffusion

 

Adverse effect on embryo unaccompanied by the development of congenital malformations is called

>embryotoxic action

Name the drug used for influenza A prevention

>rimantadine

 

Tick the drug, inhibiting viral DNA synthesis

>acyclovir

Choose the drug, a derivative of adamantane

>rimantadine

 

The drug of choice for treatment of Schistosoma haematobium is

>prazoquantel

The drug of choice for the treatment of T.saginata (tapeworm) is

>niclosamide

 

Thiabendazole, a benzimidazole derivative, is antihelminthic drug used primary to treat infections caused by

>strongyloides

The mechanism of action by which pyrantel pamoate is effective for treatment of Necator americanus (hookworm) is

>inhibition of neuromuscular transmission

 

Tick the antiviral drug which belongs to endogenous proteins

>interferon alfa

Which drug is used to suppress the erythrocytic phase of malaria

>quinidine

The mechanism of action of chloroquine in Plasmodium falciparum malaria is elimination of

>asexual forms

 

Tick the drug for nematodosis (roundworm invasion) treatment

>pyrantel

Tick the drug, blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction of helminthes

>piperazine

 

What is characteristic of active transport of drugs through membrane

>can be against the concentration gradient

Which drug is used to suppress the erythrocytic phase of malaria

>chloroquine

 

The intensity of passive diffusion of drug substances through membranes determined by

>lipophilic degree of substance

The intensity of passive diffusion of drug substances through the cell membrane is determined by

>transmembrane concentration gradient of substance

The absorption of drugs from intestine against the concentration gradient may be provided by

>active transport

 

Thick the drug, inhibiting M2-protein

 rimantadine

What mediator causes elevation of hypothalamic set- point for temperature control

>PGE-2

What are some mediators for pyrogens

>PGE2

 

What is the mechanism of antimicrobial action of potassium permanganate

violation of oxidation-reductive processes

 

Which one of following agents could significant impair the ability to drive an automobile

>diphenhydramine

Which of the following is the most frequent side effect of H-1 antihistamines that is less common with second generation antihistamines

>sedation

 

Which type of cell is histamine mostly produced in

>mast cell

Histamine stimulates what type of cell in the stomach

>parietal cells

 

Which mediators of inflammation are acted on by NSAIDs

>arachidonic acid  and metabolites, such as prostaglandins, thromboxanes, and leukortrienes

What antiseptic stimulates the respiratory center of the medulla

>ammonia spirit

What test is important to perform while on isoniazid

>liver enzymes

 

What classes of drugs are: erythromycin and azithromycin

>macrolides

 

What are some measures to be taken when using aminoglycosides

>conduct a hearing test

Along with penicillin this line of drugs also contain a beta-lactam that is responsible for their antimicrobial activity

>cephalosporins

What product should not be taken with tetracyclines

>milk

What classes is these drug : doxycycline

>tetracyclines

What drug class are these ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin

>fluoroquiolones

 

Suitable for treatment of bacterial meningitis caused by H.influenzae

>cefotaxime